I met a question of vlan in self-study CCNA,
Books written on the cisco switches if not configured on the second floor, it's all belong to the same VLAN ports, and the Access port
Now have the following equipment
1 - the two computers are A -- 172.168.1. X this paragraph C and B -- 192.168.1. This paragraph C X
2 - a 2950 switch, do not make any configuration
3 - A 3825 router, 0/0 Fa is computer A gateway 172.168.1 X of this segment, 0/1 Fa is the gateway computer B 192.168.1 X this segment
Then A and B, respectively, even the 2950 computer 1 and 2, 3825 router's Fa 0/0 and 0/1 respectively mouth even 2950 23 and 24

I want to ask next since all switch ports are of a vlan, and the Access port, every time it only had a network segment, either 172 or 192, why, two different network segment of computer in this switch, can automatically find 3825 photogenic corresponding gateway, please analyse, isn't me where theory is not well,

CodePudding user response:

Vlan and IP has nothing to do

CodePudding user response:

Reference

I want to ask next since all switch ports are of a vlan, and the Access port, every time it only had a network segment,

This sentence is taken for granted,

CodePudding user response:

Bro, didn't meet; The general is a unilateral routing