Have bosses can help take a look at this how, why PC1 is ping PC2 understand-CodePudding

CodePudding user response:

Since you in router x. 1 do the IP address of the gateway, you why want to use the IP address of the gateway pc1 and pc2? So set how will fail?

CodePudding user response:

reference 1st floor weixin_42235140 response:

since you in router x. 1 do the IP address of the gateway, you why want to use the IP address of the gateway pc1 and pc2? So set how will fail?

Don't use that router x. 1 do the IP address of the gateway brother? I am a novice don't understand why

CodePudding user response:

Yes, you are going to change mo pc1 and 2 address to change the address of the gateway,

CodePudding user response:

Your gateway interface and the interface is 0.2 0.1 VLAN10 (PC1) VLAN (PC2) gateway address, can't see you PC1, PC2 what configuration of the gateway,

Are you going to do with these judgments, single-arm routing, that is to say, although your PC1, PC2 are connected on SW1, but because of the connection in different VLAN, then to the communication between them must pass routing, and the routing is done by the GATEWAY (can also be done on SW1, of course, the premise is your SW1 support routing functions), so there are two don't know did you configure
1, SW1 0/0/1 to be configured to trunk model, and to allow VLAN10 data by 20,
On 2, want to in the child interface encapsulation dot1q agreement, 0.1 to 0.2 VLAN10 packaging to VLAN2, this is according to your child interface IP address of the VLAN IP judgment,

CodePudding user response:

Ok, thank you bosses! I understand.

CodePudding user response:

You through what way to learn? The single-arm routing books have taught how to configure,

CodePudding user response:

Gi0//0/0.1 to see if the encapsulation. 1 q vlan10

CodePudding user response:

Single-arm routing positive solutions